I would like to emphasize that I have written this article not to question the Almighty nor be blasphemous but for the sake of seeking answers.
In the Genesis account, God created man and woman. He allowed them to live in paradise, The Garden of Eden. He entrusted all of His other creations to man. He also permitted man to eat all kinds of edible fruits, vegetables, grains, and nuts that is found in the garden, including the fruit from the Tree of Life. However, He specified that they should not consume the fruit from the Tree of Knowledge for they will perish.
Then one day when Eve was walking in the garden, she encountered the devil, in a form of a serpent (not necessarily a snake). The devil convinced her to eat the fruit from the Tree of Knowledge, that there is nothing wrong with having knowledge, and that they will not die; the woman succumb to the temptation. To her surprise she did not die (well not instantaneously), and she shared her discovery to her partner, Adam, and he also ate the fruit. After it, there innocence was shattered and in less than the blink of an eye there was an influx of knowledge. Right there and then the first sin, malice (in my opinion^_^), manifested and they were conscious that they were naked.
From what I have understood, prior to the fall of humanity, sin did not exist due to the reason that Adam and Eve don't know what is right and wrong; they were in a state of innocence or should I say ignorance and because of that they can't define sin thus they were spared from it. So my question is does innocence or ignorance from the law excuses you after all? Also can the stage of "purity" be compared to the infancy to toddler stage wherein innocence is somehow manifested (does that statement makes sense)?
In the Genesis account, God created man and woman. He allowed them to live in paradise, The Garden of Eden. He entrusted all of His other creations to man. He also permitted man to eat all kinds of edible fruits, vegetables, grains, and nuts that is found in the garden, including the fruit from the Tree of Life. However, He specified that they should not consume the fruit from the Tree of Knowledge for they will perish.
Then one day when Eve was walking in the garden, she encountered the devil, in a form of a serpent (not necessarily a snake). The devil convinced her to eat the fruit from the Tree of Knowledge, that there is nothing wrong with having knowledge, and that they will not die; the woman succumb to the temptation. To her surprise she did not die (well not instantaneously), and she shared her discovery to her partner, Adam, and he also ate the fruit. After it, there innocence was shattered and in less than the blink of an eye there was an influx of knowledge. Right there and then the first sin, malice (in my opinion^_^), manifested and they were conscious that they were naked.
From what I have understood, prior to the fall of humanity, sin did not exist due to the reason that Adam and Eve don't know what is right and wrong; they were in a state of innocence or should I say ignorance and because of that they can't define sin thus they were spared from it. So my question is does innocence or ignorance from the law excuses you after all? Also can the stage of "purity" be compared to the infancy to toddler stage wherein innocence is somehow manifested (does that statement makes sense)?
2 comments:
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Before sin, Adam and Eve's spirits are so integrated with the body, there is no dichotomy between body and spirit. Their bodies have been InSpired with God's Spirit. Therefore they can never do wrong. But God has also given them freedom. Believing the lies of the Devil also means choosing to believe that God is not a loving Father. Ergo he is trying to control us by limiting us ie. not allowing to eat the forbidden fruit.
After sin, they now know what is right and wrong, but now, because there is such a rift between body and spirit (the spirit of God died within them) they choose to do what their bodies (ie. Animal insticts) tell them to do.
Before sin, even if the law existed, they did not need the law, they were 'above' the law. Now they need the law because they desire to break the law.
Eg. if you never experienced the desire to murder your wife, you don't need the law: Thou shalt not kill (your wife). You are above the law.
To sum up in Adam and Eve's case, before sin, they were neither ignorant nor innocent. they were simply integrated - they were so good they did not need the law.
Hope I have made sense
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